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*'''v.12''' Why is reading בַּר as ‘son’ … </br>*'''v.12''' Why is reading בַּר as ‘son’ problematic? The main reason is that Aramaic was not a lingua franca until the Chaldean Kings of Babylon beginning around 600 B.C. Yet there are many Aramaic words in Classical Hebrew.'"`UNIQ--ref-000009B6-QINU`"' An important example is Psalm 139 with more than half a dozen clear Aramaisms and this Psalm also is attributed to David in the superscription. There is also the same kind of admixture of Phoenician / Hebrew and Aramaic in the inscriptions of Panammu and Zenjirli from the Eighth Century BCE. Consideration of 2 Samuel 23 shows one might expect considerable dialectical variation among the heroes of David’s Army. The reading in the LXX, δράξασθε παιδείας is obviously based upon reading the word בַּר as ‘son’. Admittedly translators of the LXX were influenced by Late Hebrew and Aramaic, but it may also represent an interpretive tradition. Finally, it makes excellent sense to construe בַּר as ‘son’ since foreign kings are being addressed by the psalmist.</br>:The phonological analysis above, which noted the alliteration of בר in vv.11-12, might also explain why the author used בַּר instead of בֵּן in v.12a.</br> author used בַּר instead of בֵּן in v.12a.
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